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How can I compute new pid coeff from old ones based on #147
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So an output range of of 0-20k is now 0-8.4k, and the rest of the loop is
equivalent? If so, then the controller is now 2.4x (20/8.4) more powerful.
That is, an output change of 1 means 2.4x more process change than it used
to. As a result, dividing the 3 coefficients by 2.4 should make the pid
output with the same oomph as before the conversion
…On Sun, Nov 10, 2024, 8:26 AM Julien Devillers ***@***.***> wrote:
Hello
I'm driving the pwm of an electric motor with a pid controler.
It works pretty well.
After some testings, I realized that the fact that the motor is powered by
a battery
makes the system behave differently depending on the battery voltage.
I will change the system in order to make the pid system control the
voltage provided to the motor instead of the pwm ; another
system will do the conversion V -> PWM based on the battery voltage.
Therefore, I expect the same behaviour whatever the battery voltage (if of
course, the pid does not ask for a voltage
more than battery voltage)
Concretely, PID will not control values from 0 to 20k (pwm period) but 0
to 8400 (mV).
My question is:
Is there a mathematical way to compute the new PID coefficients from the
old ones to get the same behaviour with the
new actuator without having to go again to a new pid tuning session?
Thanks.
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Hi Brett,
Thanks for your answer, it was obvious for p, but a confirmation for i and
d was useful!
Le dim. 17 nov. 2024 à 13:35, br3ttb ***@***.***> a écrit :
… So an output range of of 0-20k is now 0-8.4k, and the rest of the loop is
equivalent? If so, then the controller is now 2.4x (20/8.4) more powerful.
That is, an output change of 1 means 2.4x more process change than it used
to. As a result, dividing the 3 coefficients by 2.4 should make the pid
output with the same oomph as before the conversion
On Sun, Nov 10, 2024, 8:26 AM Julien Devillers ***@***.***>
wrote:
> Hello
>
> I'm driving the pwm of an electric motor with a pid controler.
> It works pretty well.
>
> After some testings, I realized that the fact that the motor is powered
by
> a battery
> makes the system behave differently depending on the battery voltage.
>
> I will change the system in order to make the pid system control the
> voltage provided to the motor instead of the pwm ; another
> system will do the conversion V -> PWM based on the battery voltage.
> Therefore, I expect the same behaviour whatever the battery voltage (if
of
> course, the pid does not ask for a voltage
> more than battery voltage)
>
> Concretely, PID will not control values from 0 to 20k (pwm period) but 0
> to 8400 (mV).
>
> My question is:
> Is there a mathematical way to compute the new PID coefficients from the
> old ones to get the same behaviour with the
> new actuator without having to go again to a new pid tuning session?
>
> Thanks.
>
> —
> Reply to this email directly, view it on GitHub
> <#147>, or
unsubscribe
> <
https://github.com/notifications/unsubscribe-auth/AACYX4Q47M56QSH5TXQ6VDTZ75NHZAVCNFSM6AAAAABRQG4JYWVHI2DSMVQWIX3LMV43ASLTON2WKOZSGY2DOMRSHEZTQNI>
> .
> You are receiving this because you are subscribed to this thread.Message
> ID: ***@***.***>
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Hello
I'm driving the pwm of an electric motor with a pid controler.
It works pretty well.
After some testings, I realized that the fact that the motor is powered by a battery
makes the system behave differently depending on the battery voltage.
I will change the system in order to make the pid system control the voltage provided to the motor instead of the pwm ; another
system will do the conversion V -> PWM based on the battery voltage.
Therefore, I expect the same behaviour whatever the battery voltage (if of course, the pid does not ask for a voltage
more than battery voltage)
Concretely, PID will not control values from 0 to 20k (pwm period) but 0 to 8400 (mV).
My question is:
Is there a mathematical way to compute the new PID coefficients from the old ones to get the same behaviour with the
new actuator without having to go again to a new pid tuning session?
Thanks.
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